Suppose \(\lim_{x\to2}f(x)=-1\) and \(\lim_{x\to2}g(x)=0\). A student concludes that \(\lim_{x\to2}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=-\infty\). Evaluate the conclusion, then give two examples consistent with the stated limits that produce different quotient behavior.
Hints
- The quotient law requires a nonzero denominator limit.
- Keep the numerator simple and vary how the denominator approaches \(0\).
- Compare a denominator that stays positive with one that changes sign.
Solution
1. The quotient law cannot be applied because the denominator limit is \(0\). The symbol \(\frac{-1}{0}\) is not a numerical limit calculation.
2. Let \(f(x)=-1\) and \(g_1(x)=(x-2)^2\). Then the quotient is \(-\frac{1}{(x-2)^2}\), which tends to \(-\infty\) from both sides.
3. Let \(f(x)=-1\) and \(g_2(x)=x-2\). Then the quotient is \(-\frac{1}{x-2}\), which tends to \(+\infty\) from the left and \(-\infty\) from the right, so its two-sided limit does not exist.
4. Both denominator functions tend to \(0\), but the quotient behavior differs. Therefore the original limit information alone is insufficient.
Answer
The conclusion is not justified. The denominator approaching \(0\) does not determine the quotient limit. For example, \(g(x)=(x-2)^2\) gives a quotient tending to \(-\infty\), while \(g(x)=x-2\) gives unequal one-sided infinite behavior and no two-sided limit.